What is your best guess, that the word "more" was substituted for the word "less" in the amendment by a scrivener's error?
Could it have been anything other than a mistake by a scrivener? In other words, could there have been any other intent for the change that was not adequately expressed?
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Before posting, be sure to read Section Two: Article the first of The Bill of Rights. Discussion is limited to that subject. All other discussion will be moved or deleted. No incivility or partisan advocacy allowed.