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Posts: 21
Joined: Wed Jul 16, 2014 12:48 pm
First Name: Sam
Stance: Pro-Enlargement

The change from "less" to "more" in the amendment

Post by Epicurus »

What is your best guess, that the word "more" was substituted for the word "less" in the amendment by a scrivener's error?

Could it have been anything other than a mistake by a scrivener? In other words, could there have been any other intent for the change that was not adequately expressed?
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