The change from "less" to "more" in the amendment
Posted: Wed Jul 16, 2014 1:01 pm
What is your best guess, that the word "more" was substituted for the word "less" in the amendment by a scrivener's error?
Could it have been anything other than a mistake by a scrivener? In other words, could there have been any other intent for the change that was not adequately expressed?
Could it have been anything other than a mistake by a scrivener? In other words, could there have been any other intent for the change that was not adequately expressed?